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Math Reviewer for Civil Service Exam

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Problem Solving is one of the scopes of Civil Service Examination. This page contains the most common word problems in mathematics (mostly comprised of business related problems) that you will likely encounter in the actual Civil Service exam. However, be reminded that the use of <b>calculator is not allowed</b>.</div>
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With respect to the the mathematical operations used in this portion, only the basics such as addition, subtraction, multiplication, division are involved. So better practice your skills in those operations. But, it also requires great analysis and understanding of the problem.</div>
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<tr><td style="text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEiYDIq9ghwgzGszC1kgJ2aIh7HM9n8O0jEvnSFDRItFnL_iptv-qqd2MGwXj0-eoY-WJ3dZXXN9O7C4ENTX4rblBkpaWx8UApO8Evo8HryBYjA_GYq-a48_ko53dwgd3aODLLSTVBaM_Tsp/s1600/ATAR-Calculator1.jpg" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: auto; margin-right: auto;"><img alt="Math Reviewer for Civil Service Exam" border="0" height="360" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEiYDIq9ghwgzGszC1kgJ2aIh7HM9n8O0jEvnSFDRItFnL_iptv-qqd2MGwXj0-eoY-WJ3dZXXN9O7C4ENTX4rblBkpaWx8UApO8Evo8HryBYjA_GYq-a48_ko53dwgd3aODLLSTVBaM_Tsp/s1600/ATAR-Calculator1.jpg" title="Math Reviewer for Civil Service Exam" width="400" /></a></td></tr>
<tr><td class="tr-caption" style="text-align: center;">Civil Service Reviewer</td></tr>
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<b><b>12 Tips for Solving Math Problems</b></b></div>
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The key to solving math word problems is to have a plan or strategy, which works in any math word problem solving situation. For children having problems with math word problems, the following 12 tips are provided for helping children become good problem solvers.</div>
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1. Read the problem carefully looking for clues and important information. Write down the clues, underline, or highlight the clues.</div>
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2. If necessary, rewrite the problem to help find these clues.</div>
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3. Look for clues to determine which math operation is needed to solve the problem, for example addition, subtraction, etc. Look for key words like sum, difference, product, perimeter, area, etc. They lead to the operation needed to solve the problem.</div>
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4. Look for what is needed solve the problem, for example: how many will are left, the total will be, everyone gets red, everyone gets one of each, etc.</div>
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5. Use variable symbols, such as “X” for missing information.</div>
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6. Eliminate all non-essential information by drawing a line through distracting information.</div>
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7. Draw sketches, drawings, and models to see the problem.</div>
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8. Is the word problem similar to a previous work, if so how was it solved.</div>
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9. Develop a plan based on the information determined to be important for solving the problem.</div>
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10. Carry out the plan using the math operations which were determined would find the answer.</div>
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11. Does the answer seem reasonable, if it does then it is probably ok – if not then check the work.</div>
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12. Work the problem in reverse or backwards, starting with the answer to see if you wind up with your original problem.</div>
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<b>Additional words:</b></div>
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Here is another extra bit of information, which is a common mistake made when working with word problems. Forgetting to use the correct units of measure throughout the problem often results in the wrong answer. Units of measure can be mixed in the same word problem and not use the appropriate units leads to errors. These must be used properly to keep the answer correct.</div>
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<span style="font-size: x-small;">Source: https://suite.io/david-r-wetzel/tz520x (12 Tips for Solving Math Problems)</span></div>
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<b>Clue Words:</b><br />
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When deciding on methods or procedures to use to solve problems, the first thing you should do is look for clues, which is one of the most important skills in solving problems in mathematics. If you begin to solve problems by looking for clue words, you will find that these 'words' often indicate an operation.<br />
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<tr><td class="tr-caption" style="text-align: center;">Civil Service Reviewer</td></tr>
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For instance:<br />
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<b>Clue Words for Addition</b><br />
- sum<br />
- total<br />
- in all<br />
- perimeter<br />
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<b>Clue Words for Subtraction</b><br />
- difference<br />
- how much more<br />
- exceed<br />
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<b>Clue Words for Multiplication</b><br />
- product<br />
- total<br />
- area<br />
- times<br />
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<b>Clue Words for Division</b><br />
- share<br />
- distribute<br />
- quotient<br />
-average<br />
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Although clue words vary a bit, you'll find that there will be consistency with them to guide you to the correct operation.<br />
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So, here are the Practice Test Items for you. You can use this reviewer to help you in your preparation for the exam.</div>
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<b>* TEST BEGINS HERE *</b></div>
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DIRECTION: For each of the problems below, choose the correct answer from the choices given. Choose your answer by clicking the round button on the left of your answer.<br />
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1) Miss Roxas bought 20 blouses for PHP1800 and marked them to sell at PHP110 each. After selling 16 pieces at this rate, she decided to sell the remaining blouses at a lower price. At what price may she sell each remaining blouse and still realize a gross profit of PHP360 on the 20 blouses?<br />
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1. PHP 100<br />
2. PHP 105<br />
3. PHP 110<br />
4. PHP 115<br />
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2) The Philippines and 19 other Asian nations decide to cut their oil consumption by two million barrels a day. If this is 5% of their daily oil consumption, how many barrels are consumed by these countries in one day?<br />
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1. 400,000<br />
2. 10,000.00<br />
3. 40,000.00<br />
4. 100,000.00<br />
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3) A development project which was financed by ecological organizations amounted to PHP3.6 million. If there had been two more contributors, and the expenses were shared equally, it would have cost each organization PHP300,000 less. How many organizations contributed to the project?<br />
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1. 3<br />
2. 4<br />
3. 6<br />
4. 9<br />
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4) There are 36 reams of mimeographing paper in the drawer. If 1 1/4 dozens of reams of paper were to be used in printing, how many reams should be left in the drawer?<br />
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1. 15<br />
2. 20<br />
3. 21<br />
4. 22<br />
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5) A group of men went on fishing trip, agreeing that each should pay the same amount. The total bill was PHP 168. If there had been two fewer men, each man would have had to pay 2 pesos more. How many men went fishing?<br />
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1. 15<br />
2. 14<br />
3. 13<br />
4. 12<br />
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6) The ceiling of a building, 18 meters by 15 meters, is to be painted. How many gallons of paint are required for this ceiling if a gallon can cover 15 square meters?<br />
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1. 15<br />
2. 18<br />
3. 20<br />
4. 27<br />
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7) A square and a rectangle have equal areas. If the rectangle is 36 by 16, what is a side of a square?<br />
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1. 24<br />
2. 26<br />
3. 29<br />
4. 34<br />
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8) Ana gets a commission of 10% for each bottle of lotion she sells. If a bottle of lotion sells for PHP87.50, how many bottles will Ana have to sell to receive a commission of PHP 210?<br />
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1. 20<br />
2. 24<br />
3. 36<br />
4. 38<br />
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9) What is the sum of series of arithmetic progression having a common difference of 3.5, if the first term is 0.5 and the last term is 25?<br />
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1. 17.15<br />
2. 25.55<br />
3. 53.4<br />
4. none of these<br />
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10) If the sum of 5 consecutive numbers is 95, what is the third number?<br />
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1.  17<br />
2.  18<br />
3.  19<br />
4.  20<br />
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11) Two numbers are in the ratio of 3 to 5. The lesser number is 42. Find the greater number.<br />
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1.  70<br />
2.  75<br />
3.  112<br />
4.  126<br />
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12) The total area of a cube is the sum of its lateral area and the area of its bases. If the edge of a cube is 4, find its total area.<br />
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1.  96<br />
2.  64<br />
3.  48<br />
4.  32<br />
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13) If a can of paint will cover approximately 60 square yards, what length of the wall can be painted if the wall is 8 feet high?<br />
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1.  12 feet<br />
2.  10 feet<br />
3.  6 feet<br />
4.  none of these<br />
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14) One million is to be divided among the 3 children of a widower in the ratio of 10:12:18. By how much is the largest share greater than the smallest share?<br />
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1.  PHP 300,000<br />
2.  PHP 200,000<br />
3.  PHP 150,000<br />
4.  PHP 100,000<br />
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15) Division and section heads of agency Y who come late during their monthly staff meetings are fined. The first latecomer pays PHP0.50, the second latecomer pays PHP1.00, the third pays PHP1.50, the fourth pays PHP2.00 and so forth. If 13 came late during their last meeting, how much money was collected from them?<br />
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1.  PHP6.50<br />
2.  PHP45.50<br />
3.  PHP65.00<br />
4.  PHP84.50<br />
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16) In an illustration, one unit represents a line 85 centimeters long. How many meters long of a line will be represented by 150 units?<br />
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1.  1.275<br />
2.  12.75<br />
3.  127.50<br />
4.  1,275<br />
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17) If the management of a parking lot charges its customer PHP10.00 for the first two hours and PHP5.00 for each additional hour or a part thereof; then the cost for parking for 4 hours and 45 miutes is __________.<br />
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1.  P15.00<br />
2.  P23.75<br />
3.  P25.00<br />
4.  P35.00<br />
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18) A bureau director has an appointment at 9 A.M. in a nearby province. If he travels at 40 kph., he will arrive at 8 AM. If he drives at 30 kph., he will not arrive until 8:45 A.M. How far away is the province?<br />
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1.  30 km<br />
2.  37.5 km<br />
3.  50 km<br />
4.  90 km<br />
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19) Which of the following has the greatest discounts?<br />
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1.  a discount of 1/3 of the selling price of PHP200<br />
2.  33.3% of the selling price of PHP200<br />
3.  0.3 discount of the selling price of PHP200<br />
4.  a discount of PHP200<br />
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20) Nena has applied for employment in the next three different countries namely: Hong Kong; Malaysia and Brunei. In Hong Kong the monthly salary in HK $500; Malaysia Ringgit 300 and Brunei $200 consider the following:<br />
    1 HK $ = PHP2.90<br />
    1 Br $ = PHP12.15<br />
    1 Mal RM = PHP8.40<br />
Which country has the best offer?<br />
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1.  Hong Kong<br />
2.  Brunei<br />
3.  Malaysia<br />
4.  Hongkong – Brunei<br />
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21) Which of the following commodities has the least increase U.S. $ per pound from 1987 – 1990.<br />
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1.  copper from 0.63 to 1.14<br />
2.  aluminum from 0.62 to 0.63<br />
3.  nickel from 1.72 to 3.55<br />
4.  zinc from 0.43 to 0.68<br />
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22) Which of the following is the biggest?<br />
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1.  41.2 meters<br />
2.  4,120 centimeter<br />
3.  0.0412 kilometer<br />
4.  all are equal<br />
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23) A family budget provides that the monthly outlaws for food and house is PHP 1,810.00. If the amount spent for food is three times that of the rent, how much is the monthly rental?<br />
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1.  PHP 460.00<br />
2.  PHP 920.00<br />
3.  PHP 1,560.00<br />
4.  PHP 452.50<br />
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24) After driving 3 1/2 hours, a motorist covered 120 km. At this rate, how long will it take him to drive 360 km.?<br />
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1.  9 1/2<br />
2.  10 1/2<br />
3.  11 1/2<br />
4.  12 1/2<br />
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25) Mrs. Renoso is planning to buy curtains for their new house. She will need 23 floor length pieces, each piece 2 meters and 50 cm. Long. How many meters should she buy.<br />
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1.  37 1/2<br />
2.  47 1/2<br />
3.  57 1/2<br />
4.  67 1/2<br />
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26) An employee spends about PHP1,330.00 a month. This sum is 70% of his monthly salary. How much does he receives a month?<br />
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1.  PHP1,900.00<br />
2.  PHP2,265.00<br />
3.  PHP2,900.00<br />
4.  PHP2,290.00<br />
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27. Which pair of numbers below has 120 as a product?<br />
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1.  7 & 16<br />
2.  15 & 8<br />
3.  18 & 5<br />
4.  25 & 4<br />
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28) A certain number is doubled and then divided by 8. If after subtracting 4 from this result, one gets 16, the original number is:<br />
1.  32<br />
2.  48<br />
3.  64<br />
4.  80<br />
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29) The numerator of a fraction is 4 less than its denominator, if 3 is added both the numerator and denominator, the resulting number is 3/4. What is the original fraction?<br />
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1.  8/14<br />
2.  9/13<br />
3.  9/12<br />
4.  10/13<br />
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30) Each box of ballpen contains 24 pieces. If an employee in an office given 3 ballpens. How many boxes will be needed for 168 employees?<br />
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1.  17<br />
2.  21<br />
3.  22<br />
4.  25<br />
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<a href="http://infinithinkit.blogspot.com/p/answer-for-civil-service-reviewer-in.html" target="_blank">Click here</a> for answers to this sample test problems.<br />
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Read the post on <a href="http://infinithinkit.blogspot.com/2014/09/civil-service-reviewer-republic-act-6713.html" target="_blank">Philippine Constitution, General Information, Current Events</a>.</div>
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Math Reviewer for Civil Service Exam

Problem Solving is one of the scopes of Civil Service Examination. This page contains the most common word problems in mathematics (mostly ...

Reading Comprehension Tips and Strategies plus Practice Test

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The Civil Service Exam has yet another type of test - the Reading Comprehension, which I personally consider to be the one of the most challenging type of tests. For me, this is more challenging than the mathematics word problems in the numerical category because I'm not really fond of reading articles or passages which doesn't interest me, but for the sake of getting yourself a certificate of eligibility, then you must endure. Furthermore, it involves not only reading lots of paragraphs, passages or articles but only requires comprehension and understanding, so that you will be able to answer the questions that will follow next.</div>
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However, there is a way to ease the challenge by ensuring to follow certain tips and strategies that will let you find the the proper answer. This is some sort of a short-cut to let you grasp comprehension in a quicker manner.</div>
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<a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEiv17mEotlXKjAcvqXQ4ZWBXNJF10TvijdZLyRVaWl8tc67-cdgPMxLvAfDt6W5_FqZTpE-CVdOaaLflerVajT1reO97B7QYnKFkjjLDu6quaMVBM0rsibdkzwK40ktK0d2w48ARTGh7PqV/s1600/reading.jpg" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img alt="Civil Service Reviewer for Reading Comprehension" border="0" height="296" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEiv17mEotlXKjAcvqXQ4ZWBXNJF10TvijdZLyRVaWl8tc67-cdgPMxLvAfDt6W5_FqZTpE-CVdOaaLflerVajT1reO97B7QYnKFkjjLDu6quaMVBM0rsibdkzwK40ktK0d2w48ARTGh7PqV/s1600/reading.jpg" title="Civil Service Reviewer for Reading Comprehension" width="400" /></a></div>
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<b>Tips to improve your score for the Reading Comprehension Test:</b><br />
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<b>Keep yourself calm.</b> You will come to open the test booklet and you will definitely see long passages and paragraphs. But, do not stress yourself into thinking “whoa! do I really have to read all of this?” because you really should read it. Unless you are sure that you will not make any mistake in the other parts of the exam.</div>
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<b>Read silently but surely</b>. Avoid unnecessary lips movement and uttering because it will distract not only you but everyone else. Read with your eyes and spare your energy from excessive lips movement, it will also help you better understand what you are reading.</div>
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<b>Read with haste</b>. Do not read word for word, instead, read by group of words or phrases at a time. This way, it is easier for you to get the main topic of the paragraph. Remember, your not reading for leisure, you do not have the luxury of time. </div>
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<b>Concentrate on the task at hand</b>. Just focus on reading and everything will go smoothly as if you're just watching an incredible movie. Do not lose concentration and don't be disturbed. Because, if you lose it, you can't get it back easily. By being disturbed you'll mess up with the test and so does your opportunity to score better.</div>
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<b>Do not jump to the answers</b>. By doing so, you will only confuse yourself and you'll lose your precious time.</div>
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<b>Read with comprehension.</b> Understand what you’re reading to get the main idea of the whole passage. Questions are always related about the main idea. What is the main idea? It is simply the main topic and the center of what is being talked about in the article.</div>
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<b>Concentrate on the parts of the paragraph where the possible answer can be found.</b><br />
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<i>Take note of the following:</i><br />
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<i>Main idea</i> – is simply what the story is mainly about<br />
<i>Climax</i> – is the peak point or highlight of the story<br />
<i>Plot</i> – is the pattern of events of the story<br />
<i>Conflict</i> – is the tension and struggle part of the story<br />
<i>Setting</i> – is where and when the story takes place<br />
<i>Best or alternative title</i> – is usually being asked too, so you must choose the best one that tells about the main idea<br />
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<b>Reading Comprehension Sample Test Questions with Answers</b></div>
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DIRECTION: Read each paragraph or passage below and select the best answer for what is being asked.<br />
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1)            Boracay, the most famous beach in the Philippines, is also known as a blessed island. I have never met anyone who has not been enthralled and fascinated when they visited Boracay. The first time you set foot on its powder-like sand, you’ll surely feel lucky to be in a paradise island. The moment you see its crystal pristine water, you’ll be so thankful you’re alive. Many locals and foreigners go there again and again not only because of the breathtaking view but also because to celebrate life and its blessings.<br />
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The best title for the above article is:<br />
1. Famous Beach in the Philippines<br />
2. The Beach of Boracay<br />
3. Boracay, a Blessed Island<br />
4. Why People Go to Boracay<br />
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Answer: [3] Boracay, a Blessed Island<br />
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2)            Malaysia Airline Flight MH370’s disappearance is still under investigation. Many countries joined in the search for what really happened and where the aircraft is now. The flight lost contact with air traffic controllers about an hour after its take off. The weather was fine when the aircraft was flying so it adds more theories about other possible reasons of the aircraft’s fate. The oil slick spotted off Vietnam’s coast turned out to be fuel oil used in cargo ships so it has nothing to do with the aircraft. Interpol also says the disappearance of the jet plane has nothing to do with terrorist attack. More questions are adding to this quest and no specific answer is given and proven yet.<br />
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The above selection supports the idea:<br />
1. That Flight MH370 is somewhere under the sea<br />
2. That Flight MH370’s disappearance is still a mystery<br />
3. That Flight MH370 must have crashed after loss contact<br />
4. That Flight MH370 is in Bermuda Triangle<br />
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Answer: [2] That Flight MH370’s disappearance is still a mystery<br />
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3) Flappy Bird, a mobile game created in 2013 by Dong Nguyen from Vietnam became a hit at the start of 2014. At the end of January 2014, it was the most downloaded game in the iOS App Store. The game is extremely addictive and difficult so users strive harder to score higher. Due to its intense popularity, the creator decided to remove it from the App Store. Because of its millions of downloads, Nguyen claimed he was making $50,000 per day from it. The demand of Flappy Bird made some gadgets owners to sell their devices with Flappy Bird installed for twice or thrice their original price.<br />
<br />
What is the best title for the above article?<br />
1. Most Downloaded Game<br />
2. The Demand of Flappy Bird Game<br />
3. Flappy Bird App<br />
4. The Rise of Game Apps<br />
<br />
Answer: [2] The Demand of Flappy Bird Game</div>
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<br /></div>
<div>
<br />
4) According to NASA, effects that scientists had predicted in the past would result from global climate change are now occurring like loss of sea ice, accelerated sea level rise and longer, more intense heat waves. Even our Earth’s average temperature has increased about 1 degree in Fahrenheit in the 20th century. Many experts and scientists believe that global temperature will continue to rise from 2.5 to degrees Fahrenheit over the next century.<br />
<br />
Which of the following conclusions best summarizes the selection above?<br />
1. Climate change will continue to get worse until humanity takes serious actions to stop it.<br />
2. Global climate change is happening on earth now.<br />
3. The effects of climate change are getting extremely dangerous.<br />
4. Global climate change and its effects are occurring and are likely to increase over time.<br />
<br />
Answer: [4] Global Climate change and its effects are occurring and are likely to increase over time.</div>
<div>
<br />
<br />
5)             Mark Zuckerberg, Co-Founder and CEO of Facebook spoke with President Barack Obama to discuss about internet privacy impositions by the U.S. government. Zuckerberg said, “The Internet works because most people and companies do the same. We work together to create this secure environment and make our shared space even better for the world.<br />
<br />
This is why I’ve been so confused and frustrated by the repeated reports of the behavior of the U.S. government. When our engineers work tirelessly to improve security, we imagine we’re protecting you against criminals, not our own government.<br />
<br />
The U.S. government should be the champion for the Internet, not a threat. It needs to be much more transparent about what it’s doing, or people will believe the worst.<br />
I’ve called President Obama to express my frustration over the damage the government is creating for all of our future. Unfortunately, it seems like it will take a very long time for true full reform.<br />
<br />
So it’s up to us — all of us — to build the Internet we want. Together, we can build a space that is greater and a more important part of the world than anything we have today, but is also safe and secure. I’m committed to seeing this happen, and you can count on Facebook to do our part.”<br />
<br />
Why is Internet Privacy very important to all of us?<br />
1. Because it is not safe to trust anyone with our online accounts.<br />
2. Because nobody really owns the internet. It is a free space.<br />
3. Because it protects and secures not only our online accounts but also our online activities.<br />
4. Because the government’s protection is not enough.<br />
<br />
Answer: [3] Because it protects and secures not only our online accounts but also our online activities.</div>
<div>
<br />
<br />
6) Search Engine Optimization a.k.a. SEO is vital for a website to stay successful for a long time. The world of internet continues to evolve so website owners must stay in the game by making updates while practicing effective SEO. Great content and correct SEO are the blood of a website because without them, a site could die.<br />
<br />
The paragraph is mainly about what?<br />
1. The importance of Search Engine Optimization<br />
2. The life of a successful website<br />
3. The secrets of making a website successful<br />
4. How to apply Search Engine Optimization<br />
<br />
Answer: [1] The importance of Search Engine Optimization</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
<br />
7) There are around 2 million Filipinos without jobs today. That includes graduates and undergraduates. According to survey, there will be another half-million to graduate this year without possible job placements. Unemployed people complain about job shortage. Many go to the cities to apply to some companies but end up going home with nothing. Unemployment rate increases each year even though there are many job fairs.<br />
<br />
The paragraph states that…<br />
1. Unemployment in the Philippines is common<br />
2. Unemployment rate in the Philippines is seriously increasing<br />
3. Unemployment in the Philippines must be solved<br />
4. Unemployment solutions for Filipinos<br />
<br />
Answer: [2] Unemployment rate in the Philippines is seriously increasing</div>
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<br /></div>
<div>
<br />
8) “In the Olympic Peninsula of northwest Washington State, a small town named Forks exists under a near-constant cover of clouds. It rains on this inconsequential town more than any other place in the United States of America. It was from this town and its gloomy, omnipresent shade that my mother escaped with me when I was only a few months old. It was in this town that I’d been compelled to spend a month every summer until I was fourteen. That was the year I finally put my foot down; these past three summers, my dad, Charlie, vacationed with me in California for two weeks instead.<br />
<br />
It was to Forks that I now exiled myself – an action that I took with great horror. I detested Forks.<br />
<br />
I loved Phoenix. I loved the sun and the blistering heat. I loved the vigorous, sprawling city.”<br />
-Stephenie Meyer, “The Twilight Saga”<br />
<br />
Provide the specific setting of the story<br />
1. Phoenix<br />
2. Rainy day<br />
3. Forks, Washington<br />
4. Twilight<br />
<br />
Answer: [3] Forks, Washington</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
<br />
9) “It’s twenty-five after six and the sky still has some shades of purple and orange…oh well just like me, I am standing here, in this secretive rooftop, overjoyed…yet there are still some fragments of fear and haze… I wonder if the sky is glad and excited about the night or if it is crying over the bright day that passed.”              – Fehl Dungo – “Higher than the Rooftop”<br />
<br />
What is the mood of the story?<br />
1. Happiness<br />
2. Sorrow<br />
3. Confusion<br />
4. Grief<br />
<br />
Answer: [3] Confusion</div>
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<br /></div>
<div>
<br />
10) Investing has been a hot topic for quite a while. Many people especially employees and entrepreneurs don’t rely on time deposits and regular savings account to save and earn interests. The most common investments in the Philippines are through real estates, mutual funds and trust funds. Although few people also join trading in the stock market, more and more Filipinos are not reluctant to invest their money and diversify them to different money making wheels.<br />
<br />
What does the article try to convey?<br />
1. Filipinos are now willing to open different investments.<br />
2. Filipinos are wise in saving their money.<br />
3. Filipinos rely mainly on savings and deposit accounts.<br />
4. Filipinos invest in real estates, mutual funds and trust funds.</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
Answer: [1] Filipinos are now willing to open different investments</div>
</div>

Reading Comprehension Tips and Strategies plus Practice Test

The Civil Service Exam has yet another type of test - the Reading Comprehension, which I personally consider to be the one of the most chal...

Civil Service Reviewer for Analogy and Logic Part 2

<div>
Similar to analogy tests and verbal analogy tests, logical reasoning tests are designed to measure your ability to draw logical conclusions based on statements or arguments, and to identify the strengths and weaknesses of those arguments.</div>
<br />
<i>Example Question:</i><br />
<br />
To every question there is an answer.<br />
<br />
From this statement, which of the following is not possible?<br />
a) There is an answer that does not address any question.<br />
b) If there is a question, then it has an answer.<br />
c) Miguel answered me, though I did not ask a question.<br />
d) The lecturer discussed questions that have no answer.<br />
<br />
<i>Answer Explanation:</i><br />
<br />
Option 4 is the correct answer. If “every question has an answer”, then the statement “the lecturer discussed questions that have no answer” cannot be true. Therefore, answer D is not possible.<br />
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<a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEjzbg-Eu7eNSerA37jafE8vf_5X1g55GD7I86IJUQp3Q7WIAzVMvqt34K-L4TarXg0w7qUHd9fJ4GJtjm_1oFjqS43pVOR77qXVGkCIU4-_3Yegh3lDe3B4G5fK-_-oSxQ4wdNS3xoWnmJU/s1600/4700149860_8fbc3354af.jpg" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img alt="Civil Service Reviewer for Analogy and Logic" border="0" height="300" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEjzbg-Eu7eNSerA37jafE8vf_5X1g55GD7I86IJUQp3Q7WIAzVMvqt34K-L4TarXg0w7qUHd9fJ4GJtjm_1oFjqS43pVOR77qXVGkCIU4-_3Yegh3lDe3B4G5fK-_-oSxQ4wdNS3xoWnmJU/s1600/4700149860_8fbc3354af.jpg" title="Civil Service Reviewer for Analogy and Logic" width="460" /></a></div>
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<b><b>* TEST BEGINS HERE *</b></b></div>
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DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section consists of a statement or a passage followed by several assumptions. Determine the best assumption that can be logically made from the given statement or passage. On your Answer Sheet, shade completely the box that corresponds to your answer.</div>
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<br /></div>
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1. Gigi is probably a pianist. She can really stretch her hands and fingers.</div>
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<br /></div>
<div>
ASSUMPTION:</div>
<div>
1. Only people with big hands and long fingers can be pianists.</div>
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2. Playing the piano helps Gigi stretch her hands and fingers.</div>
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3. Stretching helps pianist perform better</div>
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4. A long stretch enables pianists to reach more keys on the piano</div>
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5. Pianists can really stretch their hands and fingers</div>
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<br /></div>
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2. Arlene should not be part of the basketball team because she does not trust her team-mates.</div>
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<br /></div>
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ASSUMPTION:</div>
<div>
1. The Basketball team needs Arlene even if she can has no faith in them</div>
<div>
2. Team mates should have faith in each other</div>
<div>
3. Arlene’s team mates are not trustworthy</div>
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4. Arlene’s team mates do not have faith in the teams</div>
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5. Arlene is better than her team mates</div>
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<br /></div>
<div>
3. If you are so smart, then why aren’t you rich?</div>
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<br /></div>
<div>
ASSUMPTION:</div>
<div>
1. To become rich is difficult</div>
<div>
2. Only the rich are smart</div>
<div>
3. Only the smart are rich</div>
<div>
4. All rich people are smart</div>
<div>
5. All smart people are rich</div>
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<br /></div>
<div>
4. In order to improve our admission process and get better students, we have decided to include an interview of the applicants as a criterion.</div>
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<br /></div>
<div>
ASSUMPTION:</div>
<div>
1. Current admission procedures are greatly inadequate</div>
<div>
2. current admission criteria need to be updated</div>
<div>
3. An interview of the applicants will help draw better students</div>
<div>
4. An interview of the applicants will be too time consuming</div>
<div>
5. An interview of the applicants will ensure the students success in school</div>
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<br /></div>
<div>
5. The present administration helps poor people acquire basic necessities for living that is why it helps quarter dwellers like Aling Rosie</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
ASSUMPTION:</div>
<div>
1. The present administration hates rich people</div>
<div>
2. Aling Rosie asked the present administration to help her</div>
<div>
3. Squatter dwellers pretended to be poor</div>
<div>
4. Squatter dwellers compete with poor people for the present administration’s attention</div>
<div>
5. Squatter dwellers are considered poor people</div>
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<br /></div>
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<br /></div>
<div>
DIRECTION: Each item in this section consists of statements followed by several possible conclusions. Assume that all statements are true, then determine the best conclusion that can be logically made from the given statements. On your Answer Sheet, shade completely the box that corresponds to your answer.</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
6. Artists are never ham-handed. All artists are inquisitive. Peter is not ham-handed.</div>
<div>
Florence is not inquisitive.</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
CONCLUSION:</div>
<div>
1. Peter is an artist</div>
<div>
2. Peter is not an artist</div>
<div>
3. Florence is not an artists</div>
<div>
4. Florence is not an artists</div>
<div>
5. Inquisitive people are not ham-handed</div>
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<br /></div>
<div>
7. Subscribing to Cable T.V. is a luxury. All luxuries are needles expenditures. Having a cellular phone is not a luxury. Dining in a Five-Star hotel is a needless expenditure</div>
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<br /></div>
<div>
CONCLUSION:</div>
<div>
1. Having a cellular phone is not a needless expenditure</div>
<div>
2. Subscribing to Cable TV is a needless expenditure</div>
<div>
3. Subscribing to cable TV is not a needless expenditure</div>
<div>
4. Dining in a Five-Star hotel is not a luxury</div>
<div>
5. Dining in a Five-Star hotel is a luxury</div>
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<br /></div>
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8. Some managers are not analytical. All managers are ruthless. Vicente is Ruthless.</div>
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<br /></div>
<div>
CONCLUSION:</div>
<div>
1. Vicente is a manager but is not analytical</div>
<div>
2. Vicente is analytical but is not a manager</div>
<div>
3. Some ruthless managers are not analytical</div>
<div>
4. Not all analytical managers are ruthless</div>
<div>
5. All ruthless people are analytical</div>
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<br /></div>
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9. All of my friends believe in marriage. Geraldine is a new friend. She lives with an officemate in an apartment downtown.</div>
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<br /></div>
<div>
CONCLUSION:</div>
<div>
1. Her housemate is most likely a good friend</div>
<div>
2. She is living-in with her boyfriend</div>
<div>
3. She needs a companion in the city</div>
<div>
4. Geraldine believes in marriage</div>
<div>
5. Geraldine is not married yet</div>
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<br /></div>
<div>
10. There are fewer juvenile delinquents in communities where the youth participate actively in different socio-civic and religious clubs. Barangay X has a number of youth clubs.</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
CONCLUSION:</div>
<div>
1. Barangay X has fewer juvenile delinquents than other barangays</div>
<div>
2. Parents in Barangay X exert great efforts to prevent juvenile delinquency</div>
<div>
3. Municipal officials encourage the organization of youth clubs</div>
<div>
4. Community development workers in Baranggay X give training in organizing youth clubs</div>
<div>
5. All young people in Baranggay X are member of at least two youth clubs.</div>
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DIRECTION: For each item in this section, determine the relationship between the first and the second numbers or the first and third number. From among the suggested answer, choose the number that will complete the analogy.</div>
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<div>
11. 32 is to 9 as 92 is to __________</div>
<div>
1. 18</div>
<div>
2. 27</div>
<div>
3. 72</div>
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4. 81</div>
<div>
5. 90</div>
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<div>
12. 30% is to 3/5 as 60% is to __________</div>
<div>
1. 1 1/5</div>
<div>
2. 1 1/4</div>
<div>
3. 3 1/2</div>
<div>
4. 2 1/3</div>
<div>
5. 2 3/4</div>
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<br /></div>
<div>
13. 0.25 is to 0.125 as 1.25 is to __________</div>
<div>
1. 6.250 </div>
<div>
2. 2.125 </div>
<div>
3. 1.625</div>
<div>
4. 1.125 </div>
<div>
5. 0.625</div>
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<div>
14. 12.5 is to 1/8 as 20 is to __________</div>
<div>
1. 1/6 </div>
<div>
2. 1/5 </div>
<div>
3. 1/4</div>
<div>
4. 1/3 </div>
<div>
5. 1/2</div>
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<br /></div>
<div>
15. 6 is to 15 as 36 is to ___________</div>
<div>
1. 90 </div>
<div>
2. 82 </div>
<div>
3. 75</div>
<div>
4. 72 </div>
<div>
5. 60<br />
<br />
16) 0.75 is to 3/4 as 0.8 is to _______<br />
1. 2/3<br />
2. 4/5<br />
3. 5/6<br />
4. 6/7<br />
5. 3/5<br />
<br />
17) 75% is to 1/2 as 45% is to _______<br />
1. 3/11<br />
2. 3/10<br />
3. 3/4<br />
4. 2/3<br />
5. 3/5<br />
<br />
18) 0.25 is to 0.125 as to 1.25 is to _______<br />
1. 0.625<br />
2. 1.125<br />
3. 1.625<br />
4. 2.125<br />
5. 6.250<br />
<br />
19) 2 is to 50 as 3.2 is to _______<br />
1. 60<br />
2. 70<br />
3. 80<br />
4. 90<br />
5. 160<br />
<br />
20) 14 is to 28 as 5 is to _______<br />
1. 7<br />
2. 8<br />
3. 9<br />
4. 10<br />
5. 15<br />
<br />
21) 1 is to 1/4 as 5/25 is to _______<br />
1. 1/16<br />
2. 1/18<br />
3. 2/6<br />
4. 3/4<br />
5. 1/20<br />
<br />
22) 0.35 is to 7 as 0.45 is to _______<br />
1. 8<br />
2. 9<br />
3. 12<br />
4. 14<br />
5. 0.9<br />
<br />
23) 1/3 is to 2/18 as 1/12 is to _______<br />
1. 2/72<br />
2. 2/48<br />
3. 3/36<br />
4. 3/25<br />
5. 1/72<br />
<br />
24) 3/8 is to 12/32 as 2/5 is to _______<br />
1. 8/20<br />
2. 10/23<br />
3. 6/13<br />
4. 4/6<br />
5. 5/6<br />
<br />
25) 1/3 is to 3/7 as 1/6 is to _______<br />
1. 3/14<br />
2. 1/5<br />
3. 1/4<br />
4. 1/3<br />
5. 1/2<br />
<br />
26) 0.4 is to 2/5 as 0.6 is to _______<br />
1. 20<br />
2. 4/5<br />
3. 3/10<br />
4. 3/5<br />
5. 1/5<br />
<br />
27) 0.2 is to 0.4 as 0.3 is to _______<br />
1. 0.009<br />
2. 0.0009<br />
3. 0.09<br />
4. 0.9<br />
5. 9.0<br />
<br />
28) 8 is to 2^3 as 27 is to _______<br />
1. 3^3<br />
2. 5^3<br />
3. 9^3<br />
4. 3^9<br />
5. 4^3<br />
<br />
29) 0.5 is to 1/2 as 0.65 is to _______<br />
1. 11/20<br />
2. 13/20<br />
3. 15/20<br />
4. 17/20<br />
5. 14/20<br />
<br />
30) 1/3 is to 3 as 2/8 is to _______<br />
1. 2<br />
2. 4<br />
3. 6<br />
4. 8<br />
5. 10<br />
<br />
31) 30% is to 3/5 as 80% is to _______<br />
1. 1 1/5<br />
2. 1 2/5<br />
3. 1 3/5<br />
4. 1 4/5<br />
5. 2<br />
<br />
32) 0.30 is to 0.075 as 0.15 is to _______<br />
1. 0.000375<br />
2. 0.00375<br />
3. 0.0375<br />
4. 0.375<br />
5. none<br />
<br />
33) 2/5 is to 20% as ¾ is to _______<br />
1. 35.5%<br />
2. 37.0%<br />
3. 37.5%<br />
4. 39.0%<br />
5. 36.5%<br />
<br />
34) 625 is to 81 as 5 is to _______<br />
1. 3<br />
2. 4<br />
3. 6<br />
4. 9<br />
5. 0.648<br />
<br />
35) 8 is to 11 as 36 is to _______<br />
1. 49.50<br />
2. 55.00<br />
3. 59.50<br />
4. 65.00<br />
5. 69.50</div>
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********************END********************</div>
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For the correct answers, <a href="http://infinithinkit.blogspot.com/p/correct-answers-for-civl-service-exam.html" target="_blank">click here</a>.</div>
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Read also the post on <a href="http://infinithinkit.blogspot.com/2014/09/civil-service-exam-reviewer-for_76.html" target="_blank">Civil Service Exam Reviewer for Numerical Reasoning</a>.</div>
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Civil Service Reviewer for Analogy and Logic Part 2

Similar to analogy tests and verbal analogy tests, logical reasoning tests are designed to measure your ability to draw logical conclusions...

Civil Service Reviewer for Analogy and Logic Part 1

The Analogy and Logic test portion in the Civil Service Exam might be deemed as a mind-twisting type of test, because it requires great verbal analysis and deciphering the logical meaning(s) behind them. The best way to beat this kind of test is thru analyzing and understanding the underlying relationship or notions between or behind words, phrases and ideas. Once you have discerned what relation exists, then you'll feel the sensation of just eating a piece of cake.<br />
<br />
<b>Keys Ideas in Understanding Analogy and Logic Test.</b><br />
<br />
1. Deduce the thought and relationship between the first set of words or phrases.<br />
2. Employ the same thought and relationship among the choices for the next set of words or phrases.<br />
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<table align="center" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" class="tr-caption-container" style="margin-left: auto; margin-right: auto; text-align: center;"><tbody>
<tr><td style="text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEhSm-2nAuCwjtfkTht0Lgt63CUTetL4qfE4Ru48BQThVwarr5WfX-AAg6hWShvBcjFE3IET5gt-FJMcQ-GmEanDZtcine8ef0tFCtc4IAiwr8R606DpWJoCe1gNKSlOdmiyvd8l5GTeBFTG/s1600/fire-and-water.jpg" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: auto; margin-right: auto;"><img alt="Civil Service Reviewer for Analogy and Logic" border="0" height="270" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEhSm-2nAuCwjtfkTht0Lgt63CUTetL4qfE4Ru48BQThVwarr5WfX-AAg6hWShvBcjFE3IET5gt-FJMcQ-GmEanDZtcine8ef0tFCtc4IAiwr8R606DpWJoCe1gNKSlOdmiyvd8l5GTeBFTG/s1600/fire-and-water.jpg" title="Civil Service Reviewer for Analogy and Logic" width="460" /></a></td></tr>
<tr><td class="tr-caption" style="text-align: center;">Analogy and Logic</td></tr>
</tbody></table>
<b>Analogy questions</b> may appear in its most common forms, namely the following:<br />
<br />
<i>Similar analogy</i> (Synonyms) - examples: happy and blissful, funny and humorous<br />
<br />
<i>Opposite analogy</i> (Antonyms) - examples: fat and skinny, clever and foolish<br />
<br />
<i>Object and Related Objects analogy</i> - examples: cat and kitten, plant and seed<br />
<br />
<i>Object and Classification analogy</i> - examples: knife and kitchenware, red and color<br />
<br />
<i>Object and Group analogy</i> - examples: tree and forest, seagull and flock<br />
<br />
<i>Object and Location analogy</i> - examples: plane and hangar, dog and doghouse<br />
<br />
<i>Object and Function analogy</i> - examples: keyboard and to type, phone and to call<br />
<br />
<i>Things That Go Together analogy</i> - examples: salt and pepper, spoon and fork.<br />
<br />
<i>Degrees of a Characteristic analogy</i> - examples: flat and skyscraper, tired and exhausted<br />
<br />
<i>Cause and Effect analogy</i> - examples: spin and dizzy, fire and burn,<br />
<br />
<i>Sequence analogy</i> - examples: study: graduate: plant: harvest<br />
<br />
<i>Effort and Result analogy</i> - examples: paint and painting, build and house<br />
<br />
<i>Problem and Solution analogy</i> - examples: itch and scratch, unemployment and job application<br />
<br />
<i>Verb Tenses analogy</i> - examples: walk and walked, eat and ate<br />
<br />
<i>Performer and action Analogy</i> - examples: painter and paint, soldier and to fight<br />
<div>
<br />
This list will help you to recognize and classify the different types of analogies, By familiarizing yourself with these, it will help you to complete tests, which involves analogical reasoning, faster and with less mistakes, hence, a better score.</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
<div style="text-align: center;">
<b>* TEST BEGINS HERE *</b></div>
</div>
<div>
<div>
<br />
DIRECTION: Determine the relationship of the first word to the second word in capital letters. From among the suggested answers, choose the word or group of words that best expresses a similar relationship to the third word in capital letters. On your Answer Sheet, shade completely the box that corresponds to your answer.</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
1) cat: kitten: : horse: _______</div>
<div>
1. cab</div>
<div>
2. puppy</div>
<div>
3. stallion</div>
<div>
4. pony</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
2) evaporate: vapor: : petrify: _______</div>
<div>
1. liquid</div>
<div>
2. stone</div>
<div>
3. magnify</div>
<div>
4. cold</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
3) canvas: painter: : marble: ________</div>
<div>
1. sculptor</div>
<div>
2. rock</div>
<div>
3. statue</div>
<div>
4. form</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
4) hammer: anvil: : pestle: _________</div>
<div>
1. ground</div>
<div>
2. grinder</div>
<div>
3. mortar</div>
<div>
4. knife</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
5) librarian: books: : curator: _______</div>
<div>
1. atlas</div>
<div>
2. encyclopedia</div>
<div>
3. room</div>
<div>
4. paintings</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
6) archive: manuscript: : arsenal: ________</div>
<div>
1. soldier</div>
<div>
2. weapon</div>
<div>
3. castle</div>
<div>
4. king</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
7) bodyguard: protection: : mentor: _______</div>
<div>
1. advice</div>
<div>
2. counsel</div>
<div>
3. teacher</div>
<div>
4. leader</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
8) novelist: plot: : architect: _______</div>
<div>
1. building</div>
<div>
2. design</div>
<div>
3. blueprint</div>
<div>
4. house</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
9) molecule: atoms: : tissue: _______</div>
<div>
1. organ</div>
<div>
2. cells</div>
<div>
3. body</div>
<div>
4. neutrons</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
10) eavesdrop: conversation: : trespass: _________</div>
<div>
1. property</div>
<div>
2. house</div>
<div>
3. land</div>
<div>
4. assets</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
11) KAINGIN is to SOIL EROSION as CONTOUR FARMING is to __________.</div>
<div>
1. water distribution</div>
<div>
2. wind erosion</div>
<div>
3. crop growing</div>
<div>
4. over pasturing</div>
<div>
5. soil preservation</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
12) IRREFUTABLE is to DISPROVED as IRREPARABLE is to __________.</div>
<div>
1. restored</div>
<div>
2. irremediable</div>
<div>
3. possible</div>
<div>
4. inevitable</div>
<div>
5. insoluble</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
13) FORE is to AFT as BOW is to ____________.</div>
<div>
1. paddle</div>
<div>
2. deck</div>
<div>
3. boat</div>
<div>
4. arrow</div>
<div>
5. stern</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
14) PHOTOGRAPHER is to PICTURE as CARTOGRAPHER is to __________.</div>
<div>
1. plan</div>
<div>
2. design</div>
<div>
3. graph</div>
<div>
4. cartoon</div>
<div>
5. map</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
15) TIRADE is to ABUSIVE as EULOGY is to __________.</div>
<div>
1. laudatory</div>
<div>
2. flowery</div>
<div>
3. necrology</div>
<div>
4. belittling</div>
<div>
5. censure</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
16) PERJURY is to LIE as LARCENY is to __________.</div>
<div>
1. conspire</div>
<div>
2. kill</div>
<div>
3. steal</div>
<div>
4. injure</div>
<div>
5. trespass</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
17) OPTICS is to PHYSICS as DIALECTICS is to __________.</div>
<div>
1. dialogue</div>
<div>
2. mathematics<br />
3. diction</div>
<div>
4. grammar</div>
<div>
5. logic</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
18) RUMMAGE is to DISORDER as TENDERFOOT is to __________.</div>
<div>
1. rookie</div>
<div>
2. expert</div>
<div>
3. student</div>
<div>
4. veteran</div>
<div>
5. old-timer</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
19) COMPASS is to DIRECTION as CALIPER is to __________.</div>
<div>
1. speed</div>
<div>
2. pitch</div>
<div>
3. diameter</div>
<div>
4. altitude</div>
<div>
5. volume</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
20) BREWING is to BEER as TANNING is to _________.</div>
<div>
1. rubber</div>
<div>
2. cotton</div>
<div>
3. tea</div>
<div>
4. glass</div>
<div>
5. leather</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
DIRECTION: For each sentence, complete the analogy by choosing a pair of words from the suggested answers. On your Answer Sheet, shade completely the box that corresponds to your answers.</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
21) __________ is to METAMORPHOSIS as CATHARSIS is to ___________.</div>
<div>
1. condition-chapter</div>
<div>
2. comparison-effect</div>
<div>
3. state-cause</div>
<div>
4. process-stage</div>
<div>
5. change-purification</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
22) __________ is to SWORD as HOLSTER is to __________.</div>
<div>
1. blade-spin</div>
<div>
2. scabbard-pistol</div>
<div>
3. duel-bolo</div>
<div>
4. sheath-shot</div>
<div>
5. hilt-rifle</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
23) __________ is to SCHOOL as STAR is to _________.</div>
<div>
1. student-rock</div>
<div>
2. principal-dancer</div>
<div>
3. fish-constellation</div>
<div>
4. bird-tree</div>
<div>
5. thesis-player</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
24) _________ is to LATE as AUTHENTIC is to _________.</div>
<div>
1. punctual-counterfeit</div>
<div>
2. prompt-genuine </div>
<div>
3. diligent-original</div>
<div>
4. absent-false</div>
<div>
5. early-real</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
25) __________ is to PAPER as WORM is to __________.</div>
<div>
1. wrap-wriggle</div>
<div>
2. tree-silk</div>
<div>
3. print-bait</div>
<div>
4. sap-tick</div>
<div>
5. ink-soil</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
DIRECTION: Analyze carefully the statements in each of the following items. Choose the correct answer from the given choices. On your Answer Sheet, shade completely the box that corresponds to your answer.</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
26) A to H are persons compared according to their age and the speed at which they finish a certain job. A is older than B and faster than C. D is younger than E, older than H, and slower than F. G is older than H, younger than C, slower than H, and faster than F. H is older than A and Slower than C. Based on the preceding statements, which of the following is true?</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
1. A is the second oldest and the third fastest.</div>
<div>
2. G is older than E and Slower than A.</div>
<div>
3. C is younger than D and fastest than H.</div>
<div>
4. D is the eldest and slowest</div>
<div>
5. H is the older than B and slower than D</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
27) Point E, F, G, I are arranged in a line in such a way that F is between G and I, and E is between F and I. If E proceeds G, in what order are they arranged?</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
1. E F G I</div>
<div>
2. E I G F</div>
<div>
3. F I G E</div>
<div>
4. I E F G</div>
<div>
5. I G F E</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
28) In a certain examination, 300 competitors passed the first part and 500 passed the second part. The number of competitors who passed both parts of the examination will most likely be __________.</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
1. 800</div>
<div>
2. between 500 and 600</div>
<div>
3. between 400and 500</div>
<div>
4. between 300 and 400</div>
<div>
5. not more than 300</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
29) Anna, Karen and Nina take turns in getting the midnight shift at Ward 143 such that no one is assigned two nights in a row. Anna was assigned two nights ago and is assigned again tomorrow evening. If Karen is assigned the night immediately following Anna’s duty, who can take tonight’s midnight shift?</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
1. Only Anna</div>
<div>
2. Only Karen</div>
<div>
3. Only Nina</div>
<div>
4. Either Anna or Karen</div>
<div>
5. Either Anna or Nina</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
30) Mina, Bing, Amy, and Cel have surnames Folres, Mendez, Presez and Reyex but not respectively. Mina is taller than Amy and Cel. Ms. Mendez is tallest of the four. Ms. Flores is taller than Ms. Reyes but shorter than Ms. Perez. Also, Cel is taller than Amy and Bing. What is the full name of the second tallest person?</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
1. Amy Mendez</div>
<div>
2. Cel Perez</div>
<div>
3. Cel Flores</div>
<div>
4. Bing Reyes</div>
<div>
5. Mina Perez</div>
</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div style="text-align: center;">
********************END********************</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
For the correct answers, <a href="http://infinithinkit.blogspot.com/p/correct-answers-for-civl-service-exam.html" target="_blank">click here</a>.</div>
<div>
<br /></div>
<div>
Read also the post on <a href="http://infinithinkit.blogspot.com/2014/09/civil-service-exam-reviewer-for-analogy_22.html" target="_blank">Civil Service Exam Reviewer for Analogy and Logic Part 2</a>.</div>

Civil Service Reviewer for Analogy and Logic Part 1

The Analogy and Logic test portion in the Civil Service Exam might be deemed as a mind-twisting type of test, because it requires great verb...

LET Reviewer in BIOLOGICAL SCIENCE Part 12

<div class="bluebox">
Majorship LET Reviewer</div>
<br />
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<tr><td><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEhXo9Ow3a6jVE3nAHBKoHDvgZVcqrxTQL9UDIjVVAnO8y2du2HdacAHaGyQgsvXCXv3u2GWFRKM5wI9TSw5Tbo81DpvfmbAK6Z7crfAWUHksRd-wvB3t-0cIkaeoQGbAmau-I_GiD0lpPKD/s1600/mcqs-biology.jpg" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: auto; margin-right: auto;"><img alt="LET Reviewer for Biological Science" border="0" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEhXo9Ow3a6jVE3nAHBKoHDvgZVcqrxTQL9UDIjVVAnO8y2du2HdacAHaGyQgsvXCXv3u2GWFRKM5wI9TSw5Tbo81DpvfmbAK6Z7crfAWUHksRd-wvB3t-0cIkaeoQGbAmau-I_GiD0lpPKD/s1600/mcqs-biology.jpg" title="LET Reviewer for Biological Science" /></a></td></tr>
<tr><td class="tr-caption" style="font-size: 12.8000001907349px;">LET Reviewer for Biological Science</td></tr>
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<b>PRACTICE TEST </b><b>IN BIOLOGICAL SCIENCE</b><br />
<br />
51. The sea urchin’s body is organized around the organism’s center, like the spokes of a wheel. What kind of symmetry does the sea urchin have?<br />
a. bilateral<br />
b. radial<br />
c. asymmetrical<br />
d. unilateral<br />
<br />
53. Most vertebrates reproduce sexually. When does fertilization occur in sexual reproduction?<br />
a. when a male animal releases sperm and a female animal releases eggs<br />
b. when part of an organism breaks off and begins to grow independently<br />
c. when the cells of an embryo begin to differentiate and become specialized<br />
d. when the nucleus of a sperm cell fuses with the nucleus of an egg cell<br />
<br />
54. Which of the following is a difference between invertebrates and vertebrates?<br />
a. Vertebrates have exoskeletons, and invertebrates have endoskeletons.<br />
b. Invertebrates reproduce only asexually, vertebrates only reproduce sexually.<br />
c. Vertebrates have a backbone, while invertebrates do not.<br />
d. Invertebrates have bilateral symmetry, while vertebrates have radial symmetry.<br />
<br />
55. Which of the following is a function of the reproductive system?<br />
a. to produce all the body’s hormones<br />
b. to regulate the body temperature<br />
c. to make the hormones that fight disease<br />
d. to regulate the development of male and female characteristics<br />
<br />
56. The animal phylum that contains the largest number of different species is the<br />
a. echinoderms<br />
b. chordates<br />
c. arthropods<br />
d. roundworms<br />
<br />
57. A hydra, which has two layers of body cells, is<br />
a. a coelenterate<br />
b. a flagellate<br />
c. an echinoderm<br />
d. a porifera<br />
<br />
58. Unlike amphibians, reptiles<br />
a. are covered with scales<br />
b. have a circulatory system<br />
c. are cold – blooded<br />
d. lays eggs<br />
<br />
59. Both an octopus and a clam are<br />
a. arachnids<br />
b. crustaceans<br />
c. tunicates<br />
d. molluscs<br />
<br />
60. A fruit is a _________.<br />
a. ripened ovule<br />
b. ripened ovary<br />
c. ripened bud<br />
d. ripened stigma<br />
<br />
61. An imperfect flower is one that lacks either _________.<br />
a. sepals or petals<br />
b. stamens or pistils<br />
c. petals or stamens<br />
d. pistils or sepals<br />
<br />
62. Pollination is the ________.<br />
a. union of a person nucleus with an egg nucleus<br />
b. growth of a pollen tube in a style<br />
c. penetration of an embryo sac by a pollen tube<br />
d. transfer of pollen grains from an anther to a stigma<br />
<br />
63. The protist which can cause malaria when transmitted by the bite of the female anopheles mosquito is ________.<br />
a. Plasmodium falcifarum<br />
b. Plasmodium ovale<br />
c. Plasmodium vivax<br />
d. Plasmodium<br />
<br />
64. The arthropod which is an arachnid is the ________.<br />
a. butterfly<br />
b. spider<br />
c. beetle<br />
d. cockroach<br />
<br />
65. The squid belongs to phylum ________.<br />
a. Chordata<br />
b. Mollusca<br />
c. Echinodermata<br />
d. Nemathelminthes<br />
<br />
66. A dinner in a seafood restaurant includes clams, squid, and tuna. What phyla are represented?<br />
a. porifera and mollusc<br />
b. cnidaria and chordate<br />
c. mollusca and chordate<br />
d. mollusca and arthropoda<br />
<br />
67. The body temperature of cold – blooded animals<br />
a. is 10 deg. C<br />
b. is 100 deg. C<br />
c. changes with the environment<br />
d. remains constant<br />
<br />
68. Each of the following is a primate except a<br />
a. tarsier<br />
b. gorilla<br />
c. kangaroo<br />
d. human<br />
<br />
69. Development from a fertilized egg to adult may occur in either two ways. What do you call animals that are born resembling adults of the species, just like man?<br />
a. viviparous<br />
b. oviparous<br />
c. ovoviviparous<br />
d. none of them<br />
<br />
70. Vivian and Carlo are two amateur fossils hunters, who were unable to unearth a complete fossil of mammals. How could they determine whether it was a herbivore, carnivore, or omnivore?<br />
a. based on the skull<br />
b. based on the type of teeth<br />
c. based on the phalanges<br />
d. based on the vertebral column<br />
<br />
71. Amphibians have adaptations that protect them from very cold and very warm temperatures. During the cold winter months they become inactive. They bury themselves in mud until the temperature warms up. What do you call the period of inactivity during winter?<br />
a. hibernation<br />
b. aestivation<br />
c. incubation<br />
d. adaptation<br />
<br />
72. Amoeba proteus is a very common amoeba that you use in the laboratory for experiments. You have probably observed their mode of motility. What do they use for locomotion?<br />
a. cilia<br />
b. flagella<br />
c. pseudopodia<br />
d. feet<br />
<br />
73. What is the relationship between the cattle and the bacteria and protozoa living within their stomachs?<br />
a. parasitism<br />
b. commensalism<br />
c. mutualism<br />
d. predation<br />
<br />
74. What is formed when two or more groups of different organisms live together and interact with each other in the same area?<br />
a. community<br />
b. population<br />
c. niche<br />
d. ecosystem<br />
<br />
75. A green alga provides a fungus with nutrients and water. The fungus protects the alga from the sun and high temperatures. What relationship is illustrated in the given example?<br />
a. parasitism<br />
b. commensalism<br />
c. mutualism<br />
d. predation<br />
<br />
76. Which is an example of a renewable energy source?<br />
a. oil<br />
b. natural gas<br />
c. solar power<br />
d. coal<br />
<br />
77. Which is a source of biomass energy?<br />
a. water<br />
b. wind<br />
c. geysers<br />
d. plants<br />
<br />
78. Which of the following refers to commensalism?<br />
a. both organisms benefit<br />
b. both organisms are harmed<br />
c. one organism benefits and the other is harmed<br />
d. one organism benefits and the other is unaffected<br />
<br />
79. What ecological structure is formed by a group of individuals of the same species living together in the same area?<br />
a. niche<br />
b. community<br />
c. population<br />
d. ecosystem<br />
<br />
80. All members of a group stem from a common ancestor and are capable of interbreeding. The taxonomy category referred to here is _______.<br />
a. class<br />
b. order<br />
c. species<br />
d. family<br />
<br />
81. Which of the following is an abiotic factor that may affect the types and numbers of animals that live in an area?<br />
a. the range of temperatures experienced in the area<br />
b. the types of plants available for food sources<br />
c. the number and types of predators in the area<br />
d. the number of plants available for food sources<br />
<br />
82. What do you call animals that feed on both plant and meat?<br />
a. herbivores<br />
b. carnivores<br />
c. omnivores<br />
d. insectivores<br />
<br />
83. After drinking dirty water, a student developed bloody diarrhea and liver problems in a few weeks later. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the disease?<br />
a. paramecium<br />
b. dinoflagellates<br />
c. amoeba<br />
d. euglena<br />
<br />
84. Chemical produced by some bacteria that can kill or weaken other bacteria<br />
a. antitoxins<br />
b. antibodies<br />
c. antibiotics<br />
d. antiseptic<br />
<br />
85. At what stages in its life cycle is a butterfly most active?<br />
a. egg and larva<br />
b. larva and adult<br />
c. pupa and adult<br />
d. adult and egg<br />
<br />
85. Insecticides are used to control insect populations so that they do not destroy crops. However, over time, a new insecticide has to be developed as they become less effective in killing the insects. Why?<br />
a. Insecticides build up in the soil.<br />
b. Insecticides are concentrated at the bottom of the food chain<br />
c. Surviving insects pass their resistance to insecticides to their offspring.<br />
d. Surviving insects have learned to include insecticides as a food source.<br />
<br />
86. Not all organisms are harmful. Which of these is done by yeast?<br />
a. encourage disease food<br />
b. cause milk to become cheese<br />
c. cause Yakult to be milky<br />
d. Promotes the rising of bread for baking<br />
<br />
87. Which of the following organisms is used to convert milk to cheese?<br />
a. bacteria<br />
b. protozoa<br />
c. virus<br />
d. algae<br />
<br />
88. Why is it not quite possible for viruses to live and multiply in the outer layers of our skin?<br />
a. The outer layer of the skin has dead cells only<br />
b. The outer layer of the skin has oil which is harmful to viruses.<br />
c. The outer layer of the skin has a lower temperature unsuitable for viruses.<br />
d. The outer layer of the skin has salt from perspiration which is harmful to viruses<br />
<br />
89. Young people stand straight. Very old ones usually stoop. Why?<br />
e. Sedentary lives of the old.<br />
f. Habit of stooping developed in the old.<br />
g. Greater gravitational pull on the old than on the young.<br />
h. Bones of the old have become weak and soft and their joints become loose.<br />
<br />
90. Which of the following factors contribute to “greenhouse effect”?<br />
a. destruction of the forests<br />
b. use of carbon dioxide by land plants<br />
c. depletion of minerals in the soil by overfarming<br />
d. use of solar glass panels to capture radiant energy<br />
<br />
91. Angiosperms are also known as<br />
a. cone bearing<br />
b. seed bearing<br />
c. flower bearing<br />
d. spore bearing<br />
<br />
92. Some animals have the ability to produce a lost body part such as lizard, starfish, and brittle star. This method is known as<br />
a. regeneration<br />
b. fragmentation<br />
c. budding<br />
d. fission<br />
<br />
93. Metamorphosis is the change in structure from a larva to an adult. The following animals follow definite stages in their life cycle except<br />
a. fly<br />
b. frog<br />
c. butterfly<br />
d. turtle<br />
<br />
94. One of the principal causes of acid rain is<br />
a. Waste and acid from chemical factories being pumped into rivers.<br />
b. Acid from chemical laboratories evaporating into the air.<br />
c. Gases from burning coal and oil dissolving in water in the atmosphere.<br />
d. Gases from air conditioner and refrigerators escaping into the atmosphere.<br />
<br />
95. While observing some plants, a student notices some very small plants found attached on rocks. The plants most likely belong to<br />
a. angiosperms<br />
b. gymnosperms<br />
c. tracheophytes<br />
d. bryophytes<br />
<br />
96. A certain plant with needle – like leaves and cone – bearing usually grow and reproduce in cold places. What is the classification of this plant?<br />
a. angiosperms<br />
b. gymnosperms<br />
c. bryophytes<br />
d. monocots<br />
<br />
97. This is an offshoot of water pollution resulting from an accumulation of phosphates and nitrates from waste materials, detergents, and fertilizers. What is this phenomenon that kills aquatic life?<br />
a. acid rain<br />
b. eutrophication<br />
c. dynamite fishing<br />
d. cyanide fishing<br />
<br />
98. Animals are grouped based on their structural similarities. Identify which pair of animals is closely related.<br />
a. snake and toad<br />
b. whale and shark<br />
c. bat and monkey<br />
d. salamander and turtle<br />
<br />
99. The following practices promote sustainable development except<br />
a. reforestation<br />
b. recycling<br />
c. selective hunting<br />
d. cyanide fishing<br />
<br />
100. Ant returning from a new food source marks a trail for other ants to follow. This chemical signal is called<br />
a. hormones<br />
b. enzymes<br />
c. catalyst<br />
d. pheromones<br />
<div>
<br />
<br />
Click the download button below to download this practice set <i>with answers</i> in PDF format.<br />
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LET Reviewer in BIOLOGICAL SCIENCE Part 12

Majorship LET Reviewer LET Reviewer for Biological Science PRACTICE TEST IN BIOLOGICAL SCIENCE 51. The sea urchin’s body is organi...

Civil Service Reviewer for Paragraph Organization

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Another type of test in the Civil Service exam that will test your verbal ability is the <b>Paragraph Organization</b>. Just like reading comprehension, this one too is really time consuming because it is about arranging a set of sentences or phrases in <b>chronological order</b> in order to form a paragraph or story that make sens. Hence, it is named Paragraph Organization.</div>
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<b>Paragraph Organization Techniques:</b><br />
<br />
1. Determine the topic sentence/introduction. It usually contains the main idea or the main topic.<br />
2. Next find the supporting sentences that support that topic sentence;</div>
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3. Then look for the concluding sentence or the closing sentence. It is usually the final thought or conclusion and marks the end of the article, paragraph or story.<br />
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<b>* TEST BEGINS HERE *</b></div>
<br />
DIRECTION: Determine the best order in which to put the sentences to form a well-organized paragraph.</div>
<br />
1)<br />
A. They throw their garbage on the streets.<br />
B. Worst of all, they spit everywhere and fill the air with germs.<br />
C. Yet many people do not cooperate in keeping our communities clean.<br />
D. They also litter in the public parks and public buildings.<br />
E. Everyone knows that “Health is Wealth”<br />
<br />
1. ECDBA<br />
2. EBACD<br />
3. ECADB<br />
4. EDBCA<br />
5. EDCAB<br />
<br />
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Answer [3] Everyone knows that “Health is Wealth.” Yet many people do not cooperate in keeping our communities clean. They throw their garbage on the streets. They also litter in the public parks and public buildings. of all, they spit everywhere and fill the air with germs.</div>
<br />
<br />
2)<br />
A. Filipino values that are naturally good should be preserved and that which corrupt the mind should be rejected.<br />
B. But the fact that there exists in the Philippines today a plurality of attitudes and customs does not mean that Filipinos should accept all of them without question.<br />
C. Our society is rigidly ruled by a body of beliefs and traditions which largely determine our cultural pattern of behavior.<br />
D. In doing so, they preserve and treasure the sense that makes them true Filipinos--the sense value.<br />
E. This is widely known as Filipino custom.<br />
<br />
1. CADEB<br />
2. ACEBD<br />
3. CEBAD<br />
4. AECBD<br />
5. AEBDC<br />
<br />
<div style="text-align: justify;">
Answer [1] Our society is rigidly ruled by a body of beliefs and traditions which largely determine our cultural pattern of behavior. Filipino values that are naturally good should be preserved and that which corrupt the mind should be rejected. In doing so, they preserve and treasure the sense that makes them true Filipinos--the sense value. This is widely known as Filipino custom. But the fact that there exists in the Philippines today a plurality of attitudes and customs does not mean that Filipinos should accept all of them without question.</div>
<br />
<br />
3)<br />
A. This condition has been brought about by many factors which include industrial plants belching out smoke, emissions from vehicles, and improperly burned fuel in private residences.<br />
B. And if conditions warrant, all traffic may be halted, the burning of trash may be forbidden and in extreme cases, factories may be shut down.<br />
C. Air pollution is becoming a serious problem throughout the world.<br />
D. Warning is also given to the public when pollution becomes a real menace to health.<br />
E. To counteract such factors, state health departments now measure the amount of pollution in the air as well as the kind of pollutants.<br />
<br />
1. CAEDB<br />
2. CAEBD<br />
3. CBADE<br />
4. CABDE<br />
5. CEADB<br />
<br />
<div style="text-align: justify;">
Answer [1] Air pollution is becoming a serious problem throughout the world. This condition has been brought about by many factors which include industrial plants belching out smoke, emissions from vehicles, and improperly burned fuel in private residences. To counteract such factors, state health departments now measure the amount of pollution in the air as well as the kind of pollutants. Warning is also given to the public when pollution becomes a real menace to health. And if conditions warrant, all traffic may be halted, the burning of trash may be forbidden and in extreme cases, factories may be shut down.</div>
<br />
<br />
4)<br />
A. The only way to have a true friend is to be one yourself.<br />
B. Likewise, sacrifices need to be made to maintain and strengthen friendships, but few human pursuits make sacrifice a pleasure.<br />
C. This is not easy to do because a friend must have the qualities of the best physician, the best nurse, and the best parent.<br />
D. However, making sacrifices is one way by which one can reach spiritual nobility.<br />
E. As one humanitarian said, “ An effort made for the happiness f others lifts us above ourselves.”<br />
<br />
1. ACBDE<br />
2. AEDBC<br />
3. ABDCE<br />
4. EDCBA<br />
5. EABCD<br />
<br />
<div style="text-align: justify;">
Answer [3] The only way to have a true friend is to be one yourself. Likewise, sacrifices need to be made to maintain and strengthen friendships, but few human pursuits make sacrifice a pleasure. However, making sacrifices is one way by which one can reach spiritual nobility. This is not easy to do because a friend must have the qualities of the best physician, the best nurse, and the best parent. As one humanitarian said, “ An effort made for the happiness f others lifts us above ourselves.”</div>
<br />
<br />
5)<br />
A. Hinahasa nito ang mga bata sa pagkakaroon ng disiplina.<br />
B. Sa paglalaro natututo ang mga bata ng pagiging maliksi at malakas.<br />
K. Mahalaga ang paglalaro.<br />
D. Sa kabuuan, mahalaga ang paglalaro sa pagkatuto ng mga bata sa papel na gagampanan ng kabataan.<br />
E. Bahagi ito ng buhay ng kabataan.<br />
<br />
1. BAKED<br />
2. BKADE<br />
3. BEKAD<br />
4. KEBAD<br />
5. KEADB<br />
<br />
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Answer [4] Mahalaga ang paglalaro. Bahagi ito ng buhay ng kabataan. Sa paglalaro natututo ang mga bata ng pagiging maliksi at malakas. Hinahasa nito ang mga bata sa pagkakaroon ng disiplina. Sa kabuuan, mahalaga ang paglalaro sa pagkatuto ng mga bata sa papel na gagampanan ng kabataan.</div>
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********************END********************<br />
<div style="text-align: left;">
<br /></div>
<div style="text-align: left;">
Proceed to <a href="http://infinithinkit.blogspot.com/2014/09/civil-service-exam-reviewer-for-analogy.html" target="_blank">Civil Service Exam Reviewer for Analogy and Logic Part 1</a>.</div>
</div>

Civil Service Reviewer for Paragraph Organization

Another type of test in the Civil Service exam that will test your verbal ability is the Paragraph Organization . Just like reading compre...

LET Reviewer in BIOLOGICAL SCIENCE Part 11

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Majorship LET Reviewer</div>
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<tr><td class="tr-caption" style="font-size: 12.8000001907349px;">LET Reviewer for Biological Science</td></tr>
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<b>PRACTICE TEST </b><b>IN BIOLOGICAL SCIENCE</b><br />
<br />
1. As green plants make food, they are<br />
a. first – order consumers<br />
b. second – order consumers<br />
c. decomposers<br />
d. producers<br />
<br />
2. The producers in a pond are usually<br />
a. tadpoles<br />
b. algae<br />
c. bacteria<br />
d. small fish<br />
<br />
3. A series in which each organism serves as food for the next organism is a<br />
a. food chain<br />
b. population<br />
c. community<br />
d. niche<br />
<br />
4. Substances from dead plants and animals are returned to the water by<br />
a. producers<br />
b. consumers<br />
c. decomposers<br />
d. top consumers<br />
<br />
5. The special role of each organism in a food pyramid is its<br />
a. system<br />
b. niche<br />
c. physical environment<br />
d. community<br />
<br />
6. The consumers in a food chain in a pond are the<br />
a. algae<br />
b. plants<br />
c. bacteria<br />
d. animals<br />
<br />
7. If you study how a fish is fitted for life in a quiet water, you are studying its<br />
a. food pyramid<br />
b. adaptation<br />
c. interdependence<br />
d. population<br />
<br />
8. All the plants and animals in a pond form<br />
a. an environment<br />
b. a community<br />
c. a population<br />
d. an ecosystem<br />
<br />
9. Many interdependent food chains in a forest make up a<br />
a. food pyramid<br />
b. pyramid of biomass<br />
c. food web<br />
d. habitat<br />
<br />
10. The second – order consumers in a food pyramid get their food directly from<br />
a. carnivores<br />
b. decomposers<br />
c. producers<br />
d. herbivores<br />
<br />
11. All the plants and animals on earth<br />
a. create new matter<br />
b. recycle the same matter<br />
c. create new energy<br />
d. recycle the same energy<br />
<br />
12. An animal’s heartbeat and breathing are slowed down when it<br />
a. enters a habitat<br />
b. hunts for food<br />
c. occupies a niche<br />
d. hibernates<br />
<br />
13. If you catch a fish and eat it, you may be<br />
a. a first – order consumer<br />
b. a second – order consumer<br />
c. a decomposer<br />
d. a scavenger<br />
<br />
14. The part of sunlight absorbed most rapidly by water is<br />
a. red light<br />
b. blue light<br />
c. violet light<br />
d. green light<br />
<br />
15. The increased effect of a pesticide on organisms that feed on each other in a lake is called<br />
a. biological conservation<br />
b. biological magnification<br />
c. eutrophication<br />
d. nitrification<br />
<br />
16. Plants and animals in the same ecosystem usually have similar<br />
a. shapes<br />
b. sizes<br />
c. ways of obtaining food<br />
d. environmental needs<br />
<br />
17. Which of the following refers to a secondary carnivore?<br />
a. eats only plants<br />
b. gets energy directly from the sun<br />
a. gets energy through photosynthesis<br />
b. has less food energy available to it than consumers at lower tropic levels<br />
<br />
18. Which of the following statements is true regarding a food chain?<br />
a. there are more herbivores than carnivores<br />
b. each higher trophic level has more energy available to it<br />
c. the number of organism at each trophic level is not related to energy<br />
d. the biomass of third – order consumers is greater than the biomass of second – order consumers<br />
<br />
19. Which of the following is the result of biological magnification?<br />
a. energy is lost at each trophic level of the food chain<br />
b. the greenhouse effect will be most significant at the poles<br />
c. top – level predators may be most harmed by toxic environmental chemicals<br />
d. DDT has spread throughout the ecosystem and is found in almost every organism<br />
<br />
20. Why are green plants considered autotrophs?<br />
a. They have many pigments that capture light.<br />
b. They can build simple inorganic substances into complex organic substance.<br />
c. They can build any kind of substances.<br />
d. They depend on other sources for their food.<br />
<br />
21. In what trophic level of the food pyramid are consumers greatest in number?<br />
a. first trophic<br />
b. second trophic<br />
c. third trophic<br />
d. fourth trophic<br />
<br />
22. In a pond or desert, light, warmth, water, minerals, carbon dioxide, and oxygen make up the<br />
a. ecosystem<br />
b. community<br />
c. population<br />
d. physical environment<br />
<br />
23. Why do most plants look green?<br />
a. The chlorophyll in plants captures green light for photosynthesis.<br />
b. The chlorophyll in plants reflects wavelengths of green light.<br />
c. The chloroplasts in plants are surrounded by two green membranes.<br />
d. The chloroplasts in plants make green sugar during photosynthesis.<br />
<br />
24. Green plants make glucose from<br />
a. water and carbon dioxide<br />
b. chlorophyll and sunlight<br />
c. water and oxygen<br />
d. oxygen and carbon dioxide<br />
<br />
25. A male structure in the flowering plant is the<br />
a. ovary<br />
b. ovule<br />
c. pistil<br />
d. stamen<br />
<br />
26. Transfer of pollen from the stamen of one flower to the pistil of another is<br />
a. fertilization<br />
b. cross – pollination<br />
c. self – pollination<br />
d. reproduction<br />
<br />
27. Cuttings and graftings are examples of<br />
a. adaptation<br />
b. fertilization<br />
c. vegetative propagation<br />
d. seed dispersal<br />
<br />
28. Both gymnosperms and angiosperms<br />
a. produce flowers<br />
b. produce seeds<br />
c. have needle – like leaves<br />
d. lose all their leaves in the fall<br />
<br />
29. Water and minerals are carried upward in plant stems in the<br />
a. phloem<br />
b. xylem<br />
c. guard cells<br />
d. stomata<br />
<br />
30. Vegetative reproduction is a form of<br />
a. pollination<br />
b. seed dispersal<br />
c. sexual reproduction<br />
d. asexual reproduction<br />
<br />
31. Corn and other monocots have each of the following structures except<br />
a. parallel veins<br />
b. seeds<br />
c. a layer of cambium<br />
d. xylem and phloem<br />
<br />
32. Green plants store the energy of sunlight by the process of<br />
a. cellular respiration<br />
b. photosynthesis<br />
c. oxidation<br />
d. reproduction<br />
<br />
33. In plants, food is usually made in the<br />
a. roots<br />
b. stems<br />
c. leaves<br />
d. rootlets<br />
<br />
34. One function of roots is to<br />
a. take in carbon dioxide<br />
b. give off oxygen<br />
c. anchor plant to the soil<br />
d. produce food<br />
<br />
35. Multicellular plants have many specialized structures. What function does xylem perform in multicellular vascular plants?<br />
a. The xylem transports water and minerals from the roots to the leaves.<br />
b. The xylem is the place where photosynthesis takes place in a plant.<br />
c. The xylem breaks down sugar into a form that plant cells can use.<br />
d. The xylem is a woody tissue that fills the stem of a plant.<br />
<br />
36. Which is not a primary function of the stem?<br />
a. absorption<br />
b. conduction<br />
c. support<br />
d. storage<br />
<br />
37. Ginger is a________.<br />
a. bulb<br />
b. corm<br />
c. rhizome<br />
d. tuber<br />
<br />
38. The primary functions of the root are ___________.<br />
a. conduction and storage<br />
b. storage and anchorage<br />
c. anchorage and absorption<br />
d. absorption and conduction<br />
<br />
39. Carbon dioxide used in photosynthesis enters the leaves through the<br />
a. root system<br />
b. stomata<br />
c. phloem<br />
d. fibrovascular bundles<br />
<br />
40. All of the following reduce loss of water from plants except<br />
a. bark<br />
b. waxy layers on leaves<br />
c. closing of stomata<br />
d. opening of stomata<br />
<br />
41. The primary functions of leaves are_________.<br />
a. photosynthesis and transpiration<br />
b. transpiration and respiration<br />
c. respiration and digestion<br />
d. respiration and photosynthesis<br />
<br />
42. Which of the following is not a correctly stated difference between monocots and dicots?<br />
a. parallel veins in monocots; branching, netlike venation in dicot leaves<br />
b. vascular bundles scattered in monocot stems; central vascular stele in dicot stems<br />
c. flower parts in threes in monocots; flower parts in multiples of four or five in dicots<br />
d. usually only primary growth in monocots; secondary growth in many dicots<br />
<br />
43. How are the processes of photosynthesis and cellular respiration connected?<br />
a. both processes begin with oxygen<br />
b. both processes require sunlight<br />
c. each processes takes place only in plant cells<br />
d. each process makes the material needed in the other process<br />
<br />
44. Why do cells need oxygen?<br />
a. Oxygen is used during the process of fermentation.<br />
b. Oxygen is used during the process of cell division.<br />
c. Oxygen is used during the process of cellular respiration.<br />
d. Oxygen is used during the process of meiosis.<br />
<br />
45. What is the result of cellular respiration?<br />
a. Energy is produced from radiant sunlight and carbon dioxide.<br />
b. Energy is produced from sugar molecules and oxygen.<br />
c. Sunlight is converted into sugar molecules and oxygen.<br />
d. Sunlight is converted into water molecules.<br />
<br />
46. Which of these describes a reproduction method of sexual organism?<br />
a. forming a tuber<br />
b. fusing of sex cells from two parents<br />
c. producing runners<br />
d. division through binary fission<br />
<br />
47. The diaphragm is used in breathing by each of the following animals except the<br />
a. kangaroo<br />
b. baboon<br />
c. frog<br />
d. human<br />
<br />
48. Each of the following vertebrates is cold – blooded except<br />
a. fish<br />
b. amphibians<br />
c. birds<br />
d. reptiles<br />
<br />
49. The embryo develops within the mother in most<br />
a. mammals<br />
b. reptiles<br />
c. amphibians<br />
d. fish<br />
<br />
50. A feature that relates the platypus to the reptiles is<br />
a. egg – laying<br />
b. cold – bloodedness<br />
c. scales<br />
d. a diaphragm<br />
<div>
<br />
<br />
Click the download button below to download this practice set <i>with answers</i> in PDF format.<br />
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LET Reviewer in BIOLOGICAL SCIENCE Part 11

Majorship LET Reviewer LET Reviewer for Biological Science PRACTICE TEST IN BIOLOGICAL SCIENCE 1. As green plants make food, they ...

MCQs / Practice Test on Engineering Mathematics

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<tr><td class="tr-caption" style="text-align: center;">MCQs/Practice Test on Engineering Mathematics</td></tr>
</tbody></table>
<b>Multiple Choice Questions / Practice Test</b><br />
<b>Engineering Mathematics - Geometry</b><br />
<br />
1. Three circles C1, C2 and C3 are externally tangent to each other. Center to center distances are 10 cm between C1 and C2, 8 cm between C2 and C3 and 6 cm between C3 and C1. Determine the total areas of the circles.<br />
(a) 184.12 cm^2<br />
(b) 157.08 cm^2<br />
(c) 162.31 cm^2<br />
(d) 175.93 cm^2<br />
<br />
2. A rectangle is inscribed in a circle whose radius is 5 inches. The base of the rectangle is 8 inches. Find the area of the rectangle.<br />
(a) 44<br />
(b) 50<br />
(c) 48<br />
(d) 40<br />
<br />
3. The wall at one end of an attic takes the shape of trapezoid because of a slanted ceiling. The wall is 8 ft high at one end, 10 ft wide and only 3 ft high on the other end. Determine the area of the wall in sq. ft.<br />
(a) 50<br />
(b) 55<br />
(c) 60<br />
(d) 48<br />
<br />
4. The corner of a 2-meter square is cutoff to form a regular octagon. Determine the length of the resulting side of the octagon.<br />
(a) 0.834<br />
(b) 0.724<br />
(c) 0.732<br />
(d) 0.828<br />
<br />
5. A polygon has 170 diagonals. How many sides does it have?<span class="Apple-tab-span" style="white-space: pre;"> </span><br />
(a) 20<br />
(b) 30<br />
(c) 25<br />
(d) 28<br />
<br />
6. Find the length of the side of a pentagon if the line perpendicular to its side is 12 units from the center.<br />
(a) 14.74 units<br />
(b) 17.44 units<br />
(c) 71.44 units<br />
(d) 14.47 units<br />
<br />
7. A regular dodecagon is inscribed in a circle of radius 24. Find the perimeter of the dodecagon.<br />
(a) 149.08<br />
(b) 142.74<br />
(c) 145.53<br />
(d) 152.70<br />
<br />
8. The length of the side of a square is increased by 100%. The perimeter is increased by .<br />
(a) 25%<br />
(b) 100%<br />
(c) 200%<br />
(d) 150%<br />
<br />
9. The area of a rhombus is 168 m^2. If one side of its diagonal is 12 m, find the length of the sides of a rhombus.<br />
(a) 15.23 cm<br />
(b) 10.42 cm<br />
(c) 14.22 cm<br />
(d) 12.43 cm<br />
<br />
10. The perimeter of a sector is 9 and its radius is 3. What is the area of the sector?<br />
(a) 4.50<br />
(b) 6.52<br />
(c) 3.75<br />
(d) 5.25<br />
<br />
11. If the altitude and base of a parallelogram are each increased by 5 inches. If the altitude is increased by 3 inches and the base is decreased by 2 inches, the area will increase by 5 sq. inches. Determine the original values in inches of the altitude and base of the parallelogram.<br />
(a) alt = 3.2 in, base = 0.8 in<br />
(b) alt = 1.0 in, base = 3.0 in<br />
(c) alt = 0.8 in, base = 4.2 in<br />
(d) alt = 2.0 in, base = 2.0 in<br />
<br />
12. Three spheres of radii 10, 20 and 30 cm, respectively, are melted and formed into a single sphere. Find the volume of the single sphere.<br />
(a) 48,000π<br />
(b) 45,000π<br />
(c) 50,000π<br />
(d) 42,000π<br />
<br />
13. The bases of a right prism are regular hexagons with each side equal to 6 cm. The bases are 10 cm apart.<br />
What is the volume of the prism?<br />
(a) 935.31<br />
(b) 943.57<br />
(c) 783.22<br />
(d) 893.73<br />
<br />
14. What is the measure of the interior angle of a regular 2000-gon?<br />
(a) 180°<br />
(b) 220°<br />
(c) 200°<br />
(d) 178°<br />
<br />
15. Seven regular hexagons, each with 6-cm sides, are arranged so that they share some side and the centers of the six hexagons are equidistant from the seventh central hexagon. Determine the ratio of the area of one hexagon to the total outer perimeter enclosing the hexagons.<br />
(a) 0.8660<br />
(b) 1.0392<br />
(c) 0.6014<br />
(d) 0.7217<br />
<br />
16. The volume of a right prism with an altitude of 15 m and having an equilateral triangle as its base is equal to 234 m^3. Determine the length of the side of the triangular base.<br />
(a) 6<br />
(b) 7<br />
(c) 8<br />
(d) 5<br />
<br />
17. The interior angles of a polygon are in arithmetic progression. The least angle is 120° and the common difference is 5°. Find the number of sides.<br />
(a) 8<br />
(b) 9<br />
(c) 11<br />
(d) 10<br />
<br />
18. If the sides of a parallelogram and an included angle are 6, 10 and 100°, respectively, find the length of<br />
the shorter diagonal.<br />
(a) 10.73<br />
(b) 15.32<br />
(c) 12.53<br />
(d) 11.71<br />
<br />
19. A sphere of radius 10 m and a right circular cone of base radius 10 m and height 15 m stands on a table. At what height from the table should the two solids be cut in order to have equal circular sections?<br />
(a) 3.14 m<br />
(b) 3.24 m<br />
(c) 3.44 m<br />
(d) 3.54 m<br />
<br />
20. The sum of the interior angles of a polygon of n sides is 1080°. Find the value of n .<br />
(a) 10<br />
(b) 9<br />
(c) 8<br />
(d) 11<br />
<br />
21. A prism has an equilateral triangle with 20 cm on a side for its base, and an altitude of 30 cm. Determine the lateral area.<br />
(a) 1800<br />
(b) 1750<br />
(c) 1505<br />
(d) 2100<br />
<br />
22. Find the volume of a spherical wedge whose angle is 54° on a sphere of radius 27 cm.<br />
(a) 12,367.19 cm^3<br />
(b) 11,243.42 cm^3<br />
(c) 12,422.42 cm^3<br />
(d) 10,626.71 cm^3<br />
<br />
23. A metal sphere is melted and recast into a hollow spherical shell whose outer radius is 277 cm. The radius of the hollow interior of the shell is equal to the radius of the original sphere. Find the radius of the original sphere.<br />
(a) 200 cm<br />
(b) 225 cm<br />
(c) 220 cm<br />
(d) 240 cm<br />
<br />
24. Find the total surface area of a regular triangular pyramid if each edge of the base measures 6 inches and each lateral edge of the pyramid measures 5 inches.<br />
(a) 51.59 in^2<br />
(b) 50.23 in^2<br />
(c) 54.42 in^2<br />
(d) 50.21 in^2<br />
<br />
25. The altitude of an oblique circular cone is 8 inches and its longest element is 17 inches. Find the length of the shortest element if its volume is 54π cubic inches.<br />
(a) 8<br />
(b) 7<br />
(c) 9<br />
(d) 10<br />
<br />
26. Find the area of the spherical lune whose angle is 75° on a sphere of radius 30 cm.<br />
(a) 2356.19 cm^2<br />
(b) 2052.52 cm^2<br />
(c) 2054.34 cm^2<br />
(d) 2257.26 cm^2<br />
<br />
27. What is the name of a polygon that has 27 diagonals?<br />
(a) hexagon<br />
(b) decagon<br />
(c) nonagon<br />
(d) undecagon<br />
<br />
28. Water is poured to a depth of 12 cm into a hemispherical bowl of radius 20 cm. Find the volume of the water.<br />
(a) 2210π<br />
(b) 2304π<br />
(c) 2104π<br />
(d) 2540π<br />
<br />
29. The volume of a right circular cone is 36π. If its altitude is 3, find its radius.<br />
(a) 3<br />
(b) 5<br />
(c) 4<br />
(d) 6<br />
<br />
30. The volume of a regular pyramid whose base area is a regular hexagon is 156 cm^3. If the altitude of the pyramid is 5 cm, determine the length of the sides of the base.<br />
(a) 4 cm<br />
(b) 5 cm<br />
(c) 3 cm<br />
(d) 6 cm<br />
<br />
31. For a regular polygon of heptagon sides, find the number of degrees contained in each central angle.<br />
(a) 51.43°<br />
(b) 40°<br />
(c) 60°<br />
(d) 32.73°<br />
<br />
32. The great pyramid of Egypt has a square base 232 m on a side and 147 m high. Find its volume.<br />
(a) 2,768,334 m^3<br />
(b) 2,662,351 m^3<br />
(c) 2,632,242 m^3<br />
(d) 2,637,376 m^3<br />
<br />
33. A tetrahedron is a regular solid with a equilateral triangles for each of three surfaces. If each side is 10 cm, what is the volume of the tetrahedron?<br />
(a) 116.21 cu. cm<br />
(b) 117.85 cu. m<br />
(c) 91.67 cu. m<br />
(d) 83.33 cu. m<br />
<br />
34. A canonical vessel has a height of 24 cm and a base diameter of 12 cm. It holds water to depth of 18 cm above its vertex. Find the volume of its content in cm^3 .<br />
(a) 381.7<br />
(b) 392.2<br />
(c) 353.3<br />
(d) 363.2<br />
<br />
35. The area of a hexagon inscribed in a circle is 374.11 cm^2. Determine the area of the circle.<br />
(a) 452.39<br />
(b) 465.32<br />
(c) 423.34<br />
(d) 431.46<br />
<br />
36. A polygon has 170 diagonals. How many sides does it have?<br />
(a) 16<br />
(b) 22<br />
(c) 18<br />
(d) 20<br />
<br />
37. If the edge of the cube is increased by 20%, find the percentage increase in volume?<br />
(a) 72.8%<br />
(b) 83.2%<br />
(c) 76.3%<br />
(d) 63.3%<br />
<br />
38. The sum of the interior angles of a polygon is 540°. Find the number of sides.<br />
(a) 4<br />
(b) 6<br />
(c) 5<br />
(d) 7<br />
<br />
39. The height of a circular cone with circular base is h. If it contains water to a depth of 2/3 h, what is the ratio of the volume of the water to that of the cone?<br />
(a) 1:27<br />
(b) 8:27<br />
(c) 26:27<br />
(d) 24:27<br />
<br />
40. The diagonal of the face of a cube is 3sqrt(2) cm. Find the main diagonal of the cube.<br />
(a) 3sqrt(3)<br />
(b) 2sqrt(3)<br />
(c) 2sqrt(2)<br />
(d) 4sqrt(2)<br />
<br />
41. Find the length of the diagonal of a cube whose volume is 729 cubic cm.<br />
(a) 15.59 cm<br />
(b) 17.43 cm<br />
(c) 12.54 cm<br />
(d) 14.72 cm<br />
<br />
42. A room is 12 ft wide, 15 ft long and 8 ft high. If an air conditioner changes the air once every five minutes, how many cubic feet of air does it change per hour?<br />
(a) 17,280<br />
(b) 19,553<br />
(c) 14,522<br />
(d) 16,733<br />
<br />
43. The base areas of a frustum of a cone are 25 cm^2 volume. and 16 cm^2, respectively. If its altitude is 6 cm, find its<br />
(a) 120<br />
(b) 125<br />
(c) 122<br />
(d) 136<br />
<br />
44. Find the length of the side of a regular pentagon inscribed in a circle of radius 10 cm.<br />
(a) 10.34 cm<br />
(b) 11.76 cm<br />
(c) 12.42 cm<br />
(d) 35.22 cm<br />
<br />
45. The area of a zone of a spherical segment is 1/4 that of a sphere. What is the ratio of the radius to the altitude of the spherical zone?<br />
(a) 3:1<br />
(b) 2:1<br />
(c) 2:3<br />
(d) 3:4<br />
<br />
46. A cone and cylinder have the same height and the same volume. Find the ratio of the radius of the cone to the radius of the cylinder.<br />
(a) 2<br />
(b) sqrt(2)<br />
(c) 3<br />
(d) sqrt(3)<br />
<br />
47. If the edge of the cube is increased by 30%, by what percent is the surface area increased?<br />
(a) 45%<br />
(b) 90%<br />
(c) 70.7%<br />
(d) 69%<br />
<br />
48. Find the area of a regular pentagon whose side is 25 cm and apothem is 17.2 cm.<br />
(a) 1075<br />
(b) 1142<br />
(c) 1010<br />
(d) 1067<br />
<br />
49. The bases of a right prism are a hexagon with one side 6 cm long. If the volume of the prism is 450 cm^3, how apart are the bases?<br />
(a) 4.81 cm<br />
(b) 4.22 cm<br />
(c) 5.32 cm<br />
(d) 5.06 cm<br />
<br />
50. The circumference of the base of a right circular cylinder is 48 cm and its altitude is 15 cm. Determine its total surface area.<br />
(a) 1086.69 cm^2<br />
(b) 1042.52 cm^2<br />
(c) 1204.23 cm^2<br />
(d) 1102.62 cm^2<br />
<br />
51. A trapezoid has an area of 36 m^2 and altitude of 2 m. Its two bases have ratio of 4:5. What are the lengths of the longer base?<br />
(a) 20 m<br />
(b) 30 m<br />
(c) 16 m<br />
(d) 25 m<br />
<br />
52. The lateral area of a right circular cone is 4 times the area of the base. Find the angle at which an element of the cone is inclined to the base.<br />
(a) 76°45'<br />
(b) 73°36'<br />
(c) 75°31'<br />
(d) 77°42'<br />
<br />
53. Three spheres of radii 10, 20 and 30 cm, respectively, are melted and formed into a single sphere. Find the surface area of the single sphere.<br />
(a) 12,645.37 cm^2<br />
(b) 10,432.38 cm^2<br />
(c) 13,700.77 cm^2<br />
(d) 13,077.42 cm^2<br />
<br />
54. A sphere having a diameter of 30 cm is cut into 2 segments. The altitude of the first segment is 6 cm. What is the ratio of the area of the second segment to that of the first?<br />
(a) 2<br />
(b) 4<br />
(c) 3<br />
(d) 2.5<br />
<br />
55. What is the spherical excess of a spherical polygon of four sides whose angles are 95°, 112°, 134° and 78° ?<br />
(a) 60°<br />
(b) 54°<br />
(c) 67°<br />
(d) 59°<br />
<br />
56. Two equilateral triangles, each with 12 cm sides overlap each other to form a 6-point star. Determine the overlapping area.<br />
(a) 60°<br />
(b) 54°<br />
(c) 67°<br />
(d) 59°<br />
<br />
57. A reverse curve on a railroad track consists of two circular arcs. The central angle of one is 20° with radius 2500 ft and the central angle of the other is 25° with radius of 3000 ft. Find the total length of the two arcs.<br />
(a) 2182 ft<br />
(b) 2282 ft<br />
(c) 2382 ft<br />
(d) 2482 ft<br />
<br />
58. The area of a spherical lune is 90 cm^2. If the area of the sphere is 810 cm^2, what is the angle subtended by the lune?<br />
(a) 45°<br />
(b) 40°<br />
(c) 48°<br />
(d) 42°<br />
<br />
59. The diagonals of a rhombus are 10 cm and 8 cm, respectively. Find its area.<br />
(a) 20<br />
(b) 60<br />
(c) 40<br />
(d) 80<br />
<br />
60. Find the surface area of a right circular cone in which radius measures 14 inches while the slant height measures 20 inches.<br />
(a) 1520 in^2<br />
(b) 1453 in^2<br />
(c) 1496 in^2<br />
(d) 1562 in^2<br />
<br />
61. Find the volume of a spherical cone in a sphere of radius 25 cm, if the radius of the zone is 10 cm.<br />
(a) 2735.8<br />
(b) 2232.2<br />
(c) 2563.43<br />
(d) 2442.73<br />
<br />
62. The angle of a sector is 30° and the radius is 15 cm. What is the area of the sector?<br />
(a) 58.9 cm^2<br />
(b) 62.3 cm^2<br />
(c) 45.6 cm^2<br />
(d) 52.2 cm^2<br />
<br />
63. A regular octagon is inscribed in a circle of radius 10 inches. Find the area of the octagon.<br />
(a) 282.8<br />
(b) 265.5<br />
(c) 302.2<br />
(d) 294.8<br />
<br />
64. Find the volume of a hexagonal spherical pyramid whose base angles are 135°, 105°, 122°, 131° and 142° on a sphere of radius 20 in.<br />
(a) 1303.18 in^3<br />
(b) 1243.22 in^3<br />
(c) 1205.92 in^3<br />
(d) 1043.32 in^3<br />
<br />
65. A hemisphere whose radius is 12 inches is surmounted by a right circular cone with the same radius and altitude of 15 inches. Find the total volume.<br />
(a) 5422.84 in^3<br />
(b) 5032.62 in^3<br />
(c) 4252.32 in^3<br />
(d) 5881.06 in^3<br />
<div>
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$MCQs / Practice Test on Engineering Mathematics$

MCQs / Practice Test on Engineering Mathematics

MCQs/Practice Test on Engineering Mathematics Multiple Choice Questions / Practice Test Engineering Mathematics - Geometry 1. Three c...